FAR/AIM Knowledge Test – Practice Exam Simulator Leave a comment Welcome to your FAR/AIM Knowledge Test - Practice Exam 1. You're flying VFR at 11,500 feet MSL, 50 miles from any Class B or C airspace. What are the minimum VFR weather requirements for your current position? A. 3 statute miles visibility, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, 2,000 feet horizontal B. 5 statute miles visibility, 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, 1 statute mile horizontal C. 5 statute miles visibility, 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, 1 statute mile horizontal from clouds D. 3 statute miles visibility, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, 2,000 feet horizontal None 2. While tracking a VOR radial, you notice the CDI needle is pegged to the right. You turn right to intercept the radial, and after 30 seconds the needle moves slightly toward center. What does this indicate? A. You're successfully intercepting the radial and should continue the turn B. You're flying away from the station and should reverse course immediately C. The VOR station is out of service and providing unreliable signals D. You've passed over the station and entered the cone of confusion None 3. You're receiving flight following and ATC says "Radar services terminated, squawk VFR, frequency change approved." What does this mean? A. You must immediately contact the next ATC facility B. You've entered airspace where radar coverage is unavailable C. Continue your flight and monitor emergency frequency 121.5 D. You're no longer receiving ATC radar traffic advisories and may change frequency None 4. According to the AIM, what is the maximum tolerance for VOR accuracy when conducting a VOT check? A. ±2 degrees B. ±4 degrees C. ±6 degrees D. ±8 degrees None 5. You're climbing through 8,000 feet MSL when you experience sudden ear pain and pressure. What's the most appropriate immediate action? A. Continue climbing but reduce the rate of climb B. Level off temporarily and perform the Valsalva maneuver to equalize pressure C. Descend immediately to a lower altitude D. Continue the climb while swallowing frequently None 6. Runway end identifier lights (REIL) consist of: A. Two synchronized flashing white lights located at the runway threshold B. Green threshold lights extending across the runway width C. Alternating red and white lights along the runway edges D. Blue taxiway edge lights leading to the runway threshold None 7. You're holding at a VOR using standard right turns. ATC issues: "Cleared for the approach, hold west on the 270 radial, left turns, expect further clearance at 1545Z." What change must you make? A. Change to left turns and hold on the 270 radial B. No changes needed, continue holding as established C. Reverse course to hold on the 090 radial using left turns D. Exit holding and reverse direction to hold west on the 270 radial using left turns None 8. What does the ATC instruction "Ident" require you to do? A. State your aircraft type and registration number B. Press the identification feature on your transponder C. Squawk the assigned discrete code D. Report your current position and altitude None 9. A pilot flying at 12,500 feet MSL for 90 minutes without supplemental oxygen is most likely to experience: A. Immediate incapacitation and loss of consciousness B. Hyperventilation and dizziness C. Gradual onset of hypoxia symptoms including reduced night vision and impaired judgment D. No physiological effects as oxygen is only required above 14,000 feet MSL None 10. According to 14 CFR 91.119, what is the minimum safe altitude when flying over congested areas? A. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a 2,000-foot horizontal radius B. 500 feet above the surface C. 1,500 feet above the highest obstacle within a 1-mile radius D. 2,000 feet above ground level None 11. You experience complete two-way radio communication failure while flying VFR in Class D airspace. What should you do? A. Squawk 7600 and depart the Class D airspace immediately B. Remain clear of Class D airspace and watch for light gun signals, or land as soon as practicable C. Continue to your destination and land without clearance D. Circle outside Class D airspace until radio communication is restored None 12. On a sectional chart, what does a blue segmented line indicate? A. Class D airspace boundary B. Class E airspace beginning at 700 feet AGL C. VFR flight corridor through Class B airspace D. Class E airspace beginning at the surface None 13. When entering a standard holding pattern, the initial outbound leg should be flown for: A. 2 minutes at or below 14,000 feet MSL B. 90 seconds at or below 10,000 feet MSL C. 1 minute at or below 14,000 feet MSL D. 1 minute regardless of altitude None 14. What is a unique characteristic of helicopter operations in ground effect? A. Requires less power to hover due to reduced induced drag B. Increases power requirements due to turbulent airflow C. Only occurs when hovering above 50 feet AGL D. Has no effect on power requirements or performance None 15. A tri-color VASI system shows amber during an approach. This indicates you are: A. On the proper glidepath B. Slightly below the proper glidepath C. Dangerously below glidepath and should climb immediately D. Above the glidepath and should begin a descent None 16. The term "MARSA" (Military Assumes Responsibility for Separation of Aircraft) means: A. Military aircraft have priority over all civilian traffic B. Military controllers assume separation responsibility between participating military aircraft C. Civilian aircraft must remain clear of all military operating areas D. Special VFR operations are suspended in the military operations area None 17. Under Part 107, what is the maximum groundspeed allowed for small unmanned aircraft operations? A. 87 knots B. 100 knots C. 120 knots D. 87 knots groundspeed (100 mph) None 18. Class G airspace exists: A. Where no other controlled airspace has been designated B. Only in remote areas more than 50 miles from any airport C. From 18,000 feet MSL to FL600 D. Within 5 nautical miles of towered airports None 19. You encounter moderate turbulence at your current altitude. The best airspeed to maintain is: A. Maximum structural cruising speed (VNO) B. Best rate of climb speed (VY) C. Maneuvering speed (VA) or below D. Never exceed speed (VNE) to exit the turbulence quickly None 20. When cleared for a visual approach, you must: A. Cancel your IFR flight plan immediately B. Remain clear of clouds and maintain visual contact with the airport or preceding aircraft C. Descend immediately to pattern altitude D. Contact tower for landing clearance before entering Class D airspace None 21. The agonic line on an isogonic chart represents locations where: A. Magnetic variation is zero degrees B. True north and grid north are aligned C. Compass deviation equals magnetic variation D. GPS and VOR navigation show identical track information None 22. What is the most dangerous aspect of spatial disorientation? A. It only occurs in actual IMC conditions B. It causes immediate incapacitation C. Symptoms are easily recognizable and self-correcting D. Pilots may not recognize they're disoriented and trust false sensations over instruments None 23. If you experience an in-flight fire, your immediate actions should be to: A. Continue to your destination where firefighting equipment is available B. Increase airspeed to blow out the fire C. Execute emergency shutdown procedures and land as soon as possible D. Climb to a higher altitude where reduced oxygen will extinguish the fire None 24. The latitude and longitude coordinates on sectional charts are based on: A. WGS 84 datum, compatible with GPS navigation B. NAD 27 datum, requiring conversion for GPS use C. Local magnetic variation corrections D. True north references only None 25. You're approaching KBOS Class B airspace at 3,500 feet with flight following. Boston Approach is busy and hasn't acknowledged your last two transmissions. What should you do? A. Continue inbound and enter Class B airspace since you have flight following B. Remain outside Class B airspace until you receive specific clearance C. Squawk 7600 and proceed direct to your destination D. Descend below Class B airspace and proceed VFR None 26. When hovering a helicopter in ground effect, what is the typical height range where ground effect provides the most benefit? A. Up to 100 feet AGL B. Up to 50 feet AGL C. Up to one rotor diameter above the surface D. Up to half the rotor diameter above the surface None 27. You're flying VFR in Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL. What is the minimum flight visibility required? A. 1 statute mile B. 2 statute miles C. 3 statute miles D. 5 statute miles None 28. What does the ATC instruction "Cleared to land, wind 270 at 15, gusts 25" require you to do? A. Acknowledge the clearance and prepare for crosswind landing B. Request a different runway due to excessive winds C. Land on runway 27 and backtrack if needed D. Execute the landing unless winds exceed aircraft limitations None 29. Remote pilots must yield right-of-way to: A. All manned aircraft B. Only aircraft in distress C. Other UAS operations with higher priority D. Law enforcement and emergency vehicles only None 30. Wake turbulence is most severe: A. Behind light aircraft at high airspeeds B. Behind large aircraft during high-speed cruise C. Below and aft of heavy aircraft at low speeds and high angles of attack D. Behind heavy aircraft during takeoff and landing at low speed, high weight None 31. You're on a 3-mile final to runway 27 at night when you notice the VASI shows red over red. Your altimeter reads 1,200 feet MSL and the airport elevation is 500 feet MSL. What should you do? A. Continue the approach as red over red indicates you're on the proper glidepath B. Begin a go-around immediately as the VASI is malfunctioning C. Descend slightly to intercept the proper glidepath showing red over white D. Add power and climb to intercept the proper glidepath as you're dangerously low None 32. When using GPS for IFR navigation, RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring) is: A. Only required during approach operations B. Optional if the pilot verifies position using visual checkpoints C. Required to ensure GPS integrity and signal reliability D. Automatically provided by all certified aviation GPS receivers None 33. ATC issues the following: "November 12345, cleared to KLGA via direct GROTON, then as filed, maintain 6,000." What altitude should you maintain? A. 6,000 feet until further clearance B. 6,000 feet unless a different altitude is assigned or required C. 6,000 feet only until reaching GROTON intersection D. Climb immediately to your filed altitude of 8,000 feet None 34. During cruise flight, your engine begins running rough and you notice the oil pressure gauge dropping rapidly. Your immediate action should be: A. Identify a suitable landing area and prepare for possible engine failure B. Increase power to clear potential fouled spark plugs C. Switch fuel tanks to diagnose fuel contamination D. Continue to the nearest airport as oil pressure may stabilize None 35. Maximum elevation figures (MEF) on sectional charts represent: A. The height of the highest obstruction in each quadrangle B. The highest terrain or obstacle plus 100 feet C. The minimum safe altitude for VFR flight D. The highest elevation in each quadrangle rounded up to the nearest 100 feet, plus an allowance for uncharted obstacles None 36. A pilot who has consumed alcohol should wait at least how long before flying? A. 6 hours from first consumption B. 12 hours from last consumption C. 8 hours from last consumption AND have a blood alcohol level below 0.04% D. 24 hours if more than two drinks were consumed None 37. Two-way radio communication must be established prior to entering: A. All controlled airspace B. Class C and Class D airspace C. Class B, C, D, and E airspace D. Only Class B and Class C airspace None 38. You're established in a holding pattern when ATC issues "Expect further clearance at 1920Z." It's currently 1915Z. What should you do? A. Continue holding until you receive further clearance or reach your EFC time B. Depart the holding pattern and proceed to your destination C. Contact ATC for clarification before the EFC time D. Exit holding at 1920Z and proceed on your last assigned routing None 39. In helicopter operations, the "dead man's curve" (height-velocity diagram) represents: A. Altitudes and airspeeds where wind shear is most severe B. Areas where visibility is reduced below VFR minimums C. Regions where autorotative landing is most difficult D. Combinations of altitude and airspeed where safe autorotative landing may not be possible None 40. You're planning a flight across mountainous terrain. What is the best altitude to minimize the effects of mountain wave turbulence? A. At or below the peak height B. 3,000 to 5,000 feet below the mountain peaks C. At least 3,000 to 5,000 feet above the mountain peaks D. Exactly at the mountain peak height None 41. The term "cleared for the option" means you are authorized to: A. Make any type of landing or go-around at pilot's discretion B. Make a touch-and-go, low approach, missed approach, stop-and-go, or full stop landing C. Land on any runway at the airport D. Choose between visual or instrument approach procedures None 42. Under Part 107, remote pilots operating at night must: A. Complete additional night training and endorsement B. Use anti-collision lighting visible for at least 3 statute miles C. Maintain visual line of sight at all times and equipped with anti-collision lighting visible for 3 statute miles D. File a flight plan with the local FSDO None 43. According to 14 CFR 91.207, when is an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required? A. In all aircraft operating under IFR B. In all aircraft except those engaged in training operations within 50 NM of departure airport C. Only in aircraft operating over water beyond gliding distance from shore D. In most aircraft with certain exceptions including training within 50 NM and aircraft certificated for fewer than six occupants None 44. You're flying through an area of rain showers and notice your airspeed indicator fluctuating. What is the most likely cause? A. Engine power fluctuations due to water ingestion B. Turbulence causing actual airspeed variations C. Pitot tube blockage or partial blockage from water or ice D. Static port blockage affecting all pressure instruments None 45. What action should you take if you inadvertently enter IMC while flying VFR? A. Make a 180-degree turn and return to VFR conditions B. Climb above the cloud layer to maintain VFR C. Continue on course and request Special VFR clearance D. Establish straight and level flight, trust your instruments, and request ATC assistance None 46. Hypoxia symptoms typically begin to appear at what altitude for most individuals? A. 5,000 feet MSL for most people, earlier for smokers B. 10,000 feet MSL regardless of individual factors C. 14,000 feet MSL as required by regulation D. 18,000 feet MSL when supplemental oxygen is mandatory None 47. While taxiing at a controlled airport at night, you observe alternating white and green lights from the control tower directed at your aircraft. This signal means: A. Cleared to cross the runway B. Cleared for takeoff or cleared to taxi depending on aircraft position C. Exercise extreme caution D. Return to starting point on airport None 48. What is the purpose of the Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS)? A. Provide automated radar traffic advisories to VFR aircraft B. Broadcast automated weather observations only C. Issue takeoff and landing clearances automatically D. Continuously broadcast non-control information to reduce frequency congestion None 49. You're conducting a flight review and the instructor asks about the "IMSAFE" checklist. What does this acronym represent? A. Instruments, Maintenance, Systems, Airspace, Fuel, Emergency equipment B. IFR, Minimums, Speed, Altitude, Fuel, Equipment C. Illness, Medication, Stress, Alcohol, Fatigue, Emotion/Eating D. Inspection, Maneuvers, Stalls, Airwork, Flight planning, Emergency procedures None 50. You're flying from KJFK to KBOS and encounter icing conditions. Your aircraft is not certificated for flight into known icing. What should you do? A. Continue to destination as quickly as possible to minimize ice accumulation B. Request an immediate altitude change or routing to exit icing conditions C. Activate all anti-ice and deice equipment and monitor ice accumulation D. Turn on pitot heat only and continue flight None 51. What altitude restriction exists when flying over noise-sensitive areas? A. Maintain at least 2,000 feet AGL B. Avoid flight below 1,000 feet AGL whenever possible C. No altitude restriction if operating legally under Part 91 D. Comply with any published noise abatement procedures and avoid unnecessary low-altitude flight None 52. You receive the following ATIS: "Information Bravo, wind 310 at 12, visibility 10, ceiling 2,500 broken, temperature 15, dewpoint 12, altimeter 29.92." Which runway would you expect to be assigned? A. Runway 36 B. Runway 31 or runway closest to 310 degrees C. Runway 27 D. Any runway at controller's discretion None 53. When planning a VFR flight, what is the standard fuel reserve requirement during the day? A. 30 minutes at normal cruise B. 45 minutes at normal cruise C. 30 minutes at normal cruise from destination or alternate D. 1 hour from departure point None 54. Your destination airport has the following weather: "Winds 360 at 15G25, visibility 2SM in moderate rain, ceiling 800 overcast." Can you legally complete a VFR flight to this airport? A. Yes, if you remain clear of clouds and maintain appropriate visibility B. No, the visibility is below VFR minimums for the airspace C. Yes, if you obtain a Special VFR clearance D. No, the ceiling is below VFR minimums for any airspace class None 55. During hovering flight, a helicopter tends to drift in the direction of tail rotor thrust. This is called: A. Translating tendency B. Translational lift C. Gyroscopic precession D. Coriolis effect None 56. When operating a small unmanned aircraft, what is the maximum altitude above ground level allowed without a waiver? A. 400 feet AGL B. 500 feet AGL C. 1,000 feet AGL D. 400 feet AGL, or higher if within 400 feet of a structure None 57. What information is displayed on an IFR en route low altitude chart? A. VFR checkpoints and visual landmarks B. Victor airways, NAVAIDs, airports, and minimum altitudes C. Terminal area procedures and approach plates D. Restricted areas and MOAs only None 58. What does a flashing red light signal from the control tower to an aircraft on the ground mean? A. Stop immediately B. Taxi clear of runway in use C. Return to starting point D. Give way to other aircraft and continue circling None 59. You're planning a cross-country flight and notice a NOTAM stating "RWY 27 CLSD." This means: A. Runway 27 is closed and unavailable for use B. Runway 27 lighting is inoperative C. Runway 27 has a temporary obstacle D. Runway 27 requires prior permission for use None 60. Under Part 107, what is the minimum visibility requirement for small unmanned aircraft operations? A. 1 statute mile B. 2 statute miles C. 3 statute miles D. 3 statute miles from the control station None 1 out of 60 Thanks for submitting your response!, CLICK On The "Submit Results Button" To Check Your Results! Time's upTime is Up!Time is Up!
